- Thread Author
- #41
Gulo Blue
Well-known member
- Joined
- Oct 4, 2013
- Messages
- 13,502
Why? I can't question a conclusion without first proving it's something else? That's ridiculous. Why do I need an explanation when there is clear evidence in the study contradicting the conclusions of the researchers? I'm not buying your theory if it's simply racism because it's not impacting black women AT ALL and the gap for Hispanics is narrowing - the study projects convergence within a few generations. So now America is only fundamentally racist against black men?
The study indicated that “Black men raised in the top 1 percent – by millionaires – were as likely to be incarcerated as white men raised in households earning about $36,000” but it also finds that the relationship between racism in a given area and “incarceration rates is not statistically significant."
Personally, I think it's more complicated and can't be explained by any one factor.
It's not that black women don't see inequality. It's just that white women face just as much. It's not that far off from how much black men face. The relationship between inequality and bias is complicated. I'm not saying it isn't. But to look at this and not see it as a big deal seems really strange to me.
How you see evidence contradicting the authors is a mystery. That could involve moving the goalposts. What claim do you think is contradicted?
Last edited: