All of these versus demonstrate that God?s covenant of marriage is reserved for one man and one woman. (Click on the sub-links for context)
Link
Here?s reference to divorce, which demonstrates the same:
Link
And Jesus? himself amended the law of divorce
here and
here.
Here?s another example where the Pharisees were trying to trick Jesus, much as you are trying to do here.
link .
Finally: Matthew 19:1
And it came to pass when Jesus had ended these words, he departed from Galilee, and came into the coasts of Judea, beyond Jordan. [2] And great multitudes followed him: and he healed them there. [3] And there came to him the Pharisees tempting him, and saying: Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause? [4] Who answering, said to them: Have ye not read, that he who made man from the beginning, made them male and female? And he said: ... [5] For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife, and they two shall be in one flesh.
... [6] Therefore now they are not two, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let no man put asunder. ...
In case this is insufficient, here are more examples from scripture:
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I?ll also remind that Jesus? first miracle was at a wedding feast. That?s not a coincidence.
Something else: God, Abraham, his descendants. And there is not a single reference in scripture regarding marriage that demonstrates anything else except that it?s a covenant between man and wife.
Another thing: Jesus, being God, often cites OT versus, because He created that, too. I think my point is self-evident.